Howard Dean and the Gay Gene

There is no way in hell they could say this shows a direct relation to genetics. What of those who didn't choose objects with symmetry? Are they genetic mutants? Come on! This is just crap. We haven't see the report to seee exactly what they concluded and why in the first place.

Not objects, just human mates, if said test is reliable... It indicates that some characteristics that are indicative of this possible mate could be transmitted in some of the secretions that are on the t-shirt. That's one of the most plausible explanations to why females would tend to choose the t-shirt from an unknown man, yet more symmetrical, as that which belongs to the most attractive one.

We haven't see the report to seee exactly what they concluded and why in the first place.

The summary is quite clear. I'll elaborate a little more, ok. Take females, give them t-shirts from several men, make them rate the t-shirts in terms of which belongs to the most attractive, and look for patterns afterwards. Is a pattern found? Yes, it seems it was found the t-shirts of those most symmetrical tended to be chosen as that of the most attractive

No, its not. Natoma and I confirmed this.

Where? I mean, that is an impossibility, they differ in the number of bases by more than an order of magnitude. Heck, that number seems higher than those I recall even for some PRIMATES!!! There is no way, that could be right. If it's from a small segment of a human genome compared to the fruitfly it could be, but entire genome comparison could never be that high. It's even impossible to compare in its entirety or most of it as you already get a difference of more than an order of magnitude based on size alone, aka number of bases.

Pretty interesting find isn't it? It says a lot about the quality of the information in general doesn't it?

Really, its not a whole genome comparison? Interesting addmition. How many comparisons are full genome comparisons?


Well, it's not even a comparison from a significant portion of the genome. I don't recall the exact number, but I think humans have around 30-40k genes, the chimp comparison I showed had what? 34k, seems about there.

These are enviromental factors which are learned. Unless, of course you'd like to demonstrate to me human sex mechanisms as instincts.

I dunno of anywhere where they teach you to find out the most attractive man, by smelling his t-shirt.

hey don't differ by much? What does that constitute? Do they even know? Have they done a full genome comparison between the species? Without knowing what the differences constitute the comparison is meaningless. In their totality the differences in tens of the thousands could constitute a hell of a lot now couldn't they?

It seems it involved the full genomes or close to it, I mean 34k hovers around the totality of genes humans have.

I don't see how what you provided indicates what you concluded however the argument enviroment alters the body and behavior has been my argument all along.


That's exactly what several of the researchers said in my last link. That even genes can be significantly influenced by the enviroment.

Have you not heard what i said? Shame is a societal construct! Hense the very reason they live in a nudist colony without shame while the rest of us do not walk around naked!

Yeah, but even many of them get the you know whats when looking at females... and that is why many engage in activities that will prevent them from getting an 3r3ction in public... Many I've heard, find that a little embarrasing.

The shame might be social construct, but are you implying the nature of their sexual elation towards females is mostly also a social construct?

Yes, this is a reflection of increasing intelligence. "Meaning" is a subjective term based on reasoning.

Well, if you say so. Creativity can be qualified as part of intelligence. Still, the fact that one can develop the ability to create tools, without been able to personalize them is quite suggestive...

How do you go about classifying that as a "minor change"?

IIRC it was within what is called a relatively short period of time in evolutive terms... thus few mutations, thus I'd say minor.

Did you even bother to read over the reports i posted to you? The conclusions were quite understandable.

Yup, and I've read similar while looking for stuff over the net. Again, I'd say that from what I know, the evidence against these conclusions is greater than the evidence in favor.

What you are saying is so damn subjective! They agree there is a genetic component? Thta could mean a whole range of things no where near as left field as some of the thigns you are proposing. I even agree there is a genetic component on some level. There has to be. If not for genes we wouldn't exist.

No, I'm not saying there's just a genetic component, which you make it sound as if quite distant, what I'm saying is there is one that influences orientation.

Why do you continue to make such bold assumptions? You haven't shown a single example of a sexual orientation mechanism (as an instinct) yet you continue to assert some exist!

Yes, I've shown an example a societal one. One you seem to call impossible, that which occurs when sex is a taboo, with it not being taught to the individual either at home or at school, yet no apparent change in tendency.

That is with very minor enviromental influence, inclinations/tendencies arising in sexual orientation.

No! That is not completely accurate at all! Enviromental factors such as nutrition effect the brain and its development quite readily! Even your experiences do. Read over the reports and essays i provided you. Such material is mentioned inside.

Not accurate? what? you think I mean it's only based on genes?!? Clearly that is not what I meant to convey. It's just that the brain is indeed constructed based on this info, through brain development is influenced by outside factors, but that does not contradict the fact that its machinery is based on what's in the genes.

That is I've not said this is not so, I mean I could expose a rock to the enviroment, or a piece of clay, or a dog. Why does the dog or rock or clay not develop into a man, but the child does? Is it not because there is a blueprint in the genes, what defines a cell as a neuron and not something else? Is it not its machinery, and is the code for this machinery not coded in the genes?

Nutrition, enviroment can indeed affect the development of the brain, I've not denied this, but it has its limits. You won't get human capability out of a mouse nor will you get super human ability out of a man.

Yes they carry a blueprint however that is subject to change. Read the reports and essays i provided you with.

Subject to change to a limited degree. NOTHING, I've read, contradicts the fact that the entire machine that is known as a neuron and/or its accompanying cells are based on genes, their receptors, their method of obtaining energy, their structure, they are the product of genes. Sure it could be influenced, you change the acidity, the salinity, the temperature, the chemicals around these things, the radioactivity, exposure to sound, stimulation, etc... And surely this will influence what occurs, but it does not deny the fact that there is information coded in these molecules, and that it is based on this information that the machines that compose the cell are made.

Can a child learn to speak without enviromental influence? NO. But, can a cat learn this even with enviromental influence? NO.

In many cases? How many have actually been tested? Furthermore what significance does this have in your argument?

These are the latest findings, they've been seen in many species, in many experiments, they more complex abilities of rna are giving hints even at the origins of life, for some rna have behavior similar to that of some proteins. Significant resources are now being allocated to further study this previously ignored regions. I think, even many of the modern biology books are now beginning to includes hints to this if not outright say so.

The significance of which, is that genes aren't the simple protein coding things you seem to think they are. They code for far more than that, allowing for very complex mechanisms to arise. Some of these mechanism, IIRC, do not go by what you'd expect based on mendelian hereditary rules.

I find it interesting you state this yet you still call the genetic change from primate to human a "minor change."

NO, I called the change that occured from one of our ancestors to another, a change that seems to involve creativity, a minor change. For from what I recall, it occured in a minor period of time.

That is, tool creating capable ancestors, and the later change that allowed personalization of said tools. Not the evolution of humans!!!

Why do you only consider primitive a "behavior of most animals" an indication of "less mental capacity"?

No, Let's not continue making uneccesary connections. I've said the behavior of most ANIMALS WITH LESS MENTAL CAPACITY, native americans are not animals with less mental capacity then humans, they ARE HUMANS. Then I said behavior akin to this of animals is primitive, not indicative of less mental capacity, no argument there I presume?

I highly doubt it. As i have stated a fruit fly bares extremely high genetic similarities with humans and yet we do not share the same level of physical, mental or behavior appearances.

That statement is most likely corrupted.

You haven't shown a single human instinct yet you claim to have provided humans are driven by instincts.

Again, let's not continue making unnecessary connections here. Genetic influence does not mean what I'm trying to convey for it is the same as the definition you've provided for instinct.

The only thing I called insticts, where the swimming abilities and sucking abilities of a new born... and that was for it was called as such by several doc.s I've heard, but they could've slipped up on the terminology a little.
Still, remains reflex like behaviors, that are there.

Human sexual orienation, as they concluded, has an imense enviromental factor which is impossible to reflect is a test which assumes sexuality is dimorphic! This renders the theory sexuality is predetermined false and undeniably so.

That evidence gives a theory against it. But I'd say what has happened to millions in real life, along with the results of dozens of cases of child sexual change surgery, is sufficient to more than contradict it.

The figure should yield 100% accuracy! I am sorry, this is rather damning evidence no matter how you spin it.

There are even PHYSICAL appearance traits in which twins differ(example iris.). Now, you've heard how enviroment affects even genetic behavior, even if we were to say there is a genetic inclination, there's no telling what factors could influence the development of this or its strength.

Heck, I'd say with the nearly trauma inducing enviroment that has existed in most countries regarding things like sexual orientation, it'd be hard to know, not only if someone's answered a survey correct... but even if their behavior and orientation have not been severly altered by it.

How can you state the tests on twins, which mind you you refered to and are now back tracking

Clearly, even when I showed those tests, I referred to them as from "somewhere", and said "it sounds reasonable"... For I've not been very trusting of them.

Could you please present the mounting research that is been conducted?

Basically most genetic research, seeing as this knowledge doubles, every few years. It's mounting rather quickly, and it's showing massive reuse of machinery, throughout the natural world.

Eventually even you will be able to see the genetic activity of most human genes and compare them to those of other primates with not to much investment, heheh.

To some degree yes. For instance it would be hard to have a sex drive without a libido wouldn't it?

I mean, beyond sexual desire, something that influences inclination towards the sex of a particular mate.

Which of course proves nothing because you can't account for what that similarity means or for that matter why humans don't have instinct/reflex based sexual postering or rituals like the animals you are trying to suggest we are like. You are forced to make the same blatant and illogical assumptions the psychiatrist on the last link suggested all biological reductionists make. You write off the dynamics of human behavior which can't possibly be reduced to genes as genetically linked without any shread of evidence to back your statements. Likewise you deny the possibility what you perceive is nothing more than effects of enviroments simply because you won't comprehend the implications in human psychology.

I think not, you've probably understood what I've said a little to the extreme.

Not a one of these scientist i presented, regardless of their position, believes enviroment has no affect on sexuality or sexual orientation. There is just to much evidence infavor of my argument to deny what i have suggested.

Neither have those I've presented for the most part, nor I've denied enviromental influence.

You can be into as much biology as you want, you just can deny the existance of psychology as you are. You are trying to reduce human behavior to a rather over simplified mechanism of genetic response. This is an outdated theory based on circular logic.

History of US, genetics, the results of cases of early childhood sex change surgeries, the beliefs of many experts, and basically the message that's been given in most science or news based channels by most experts. Can I deny the experiences of millions of US citizens? NO. The results of dozens of sex change surgeries based on these notions you say are up to date? No. The mounting body of genetic evidence that show lots of things are reused throughout nature, and that humans are not excluded from this? NO.

Thats not completely true. Enviromental factors directly effect development and behavior.

Well, it seems to be mostly true, a bacterium is less complex than a multi-cellular human.

if we are 98.7% similiar in genetic code to primates how does one derive only a few hundred genes differ but not by much?

Not to ALL primates, those where for chimps I think, IIRC. The % goes down for other more distant primate relatives, and keeps going down as you keep going further and further from humans.


Do you deny the sexual revolution? Do you deny that playboy was a magazine that showcased the changing of the times? Do you deny that clothing became more and more risque? That sex was more taboo back in the day? That sex has slowly throughout the decades become a more and more acceptable public topic?

Us history shows the lack of sexual education both at school and at home, millions were exposed to this. Do you think a few conservative, non risque radio shows or a few comics are sufficient for what you suggest?

With no mayor enviromental influence towards sexual orientation for small children, their tendency remained.

You asked, IIRC, how did they know what was causing their sexual impulses...

My answer is simply the fact that when they look at little Jenny Doe they got a gut feeling and that was often accompanied by an 3r3ct!on... That when they were around girls, they got new feelings that they're not used to feeling before... and that these feelings revolved around those of the opposite sex, for they were feeling them towards and around the members of this opposite sex.


"In fact, present data is increasing that despite great care in rearing these [male pseudo hermaphrodites] as females, some, or perhaps many of them, have strong male tendencies or may even change their assigned sex when they reach 12 to 14 years of age" (Reiner 1997a, p224).

Even female pseudo-hermaphrodites assigned and reared female, with early genital surgery, are considerably likely to switch to living as men as adults (Meyer-Bahlburg et al. 1996).

The video tape "I Am What I Feel To Be" (Fama Film A.G. 1997) presents interviews in Spanish with a number of people who were born as male pseudo hermaphrodites, raised female, and later changed to live as men. Both they and their partners describe their lives as sexually fulfilling, in spite of penises so small that until puberty they were considered to be girls (Fama Film A.G. 1997).


Why is that? ( assuming that occurs). That should BE IMPOSSIBLE if we were to assume enviromental influence completely overwhelms genetic influence towards orientation.

PS

The spanish cases occured, IIRC, in "Santo Domingo" aka Dominican republic, I think.
 
My previous reply was not visible when accesing from "general discussion", probably a bug, so I'm posting this with the hopes it becomes visible.

ED

Here's info on one of the particular cases, the one I said, about the Doctor who laid down the grounds for the horrors that where to follow.

It’s a fame that derives not only from the fact that his medical metamorphosis was the first sex reassignment ever reported on a developmentally normal child but also from a stunning statistical long shot that lent a special significance to the case. He was born an identical twin, and his brother provided the experiment with a built-in matched control – a genetic clone who, with penis intact, was raised as a male. That the twins were reported to have grown into happy, well-adjusted children of opposite sex seemed unassailable proof of the primacy of rearing over biology in the differentiation of the sexes and was the basis for the rewriting of textbooks in a wide range of medical disciplines. Most seriously, the case set a precedent for sex reassignment as the standard treatment for thousands of newborns with similarly injured, or irregular, genitals. It also became a touchstone for the feminist movement in the 1970s, when it was cited as living proof that the gender gap is purely a result of cultural conditioning, not biology. For Dr. John Money, the medical psychologist who was the architect of the experiment, this case was to be the most publicly celebrated triumph of a 40-year career that recently earned him the accolade “one of the greatest sex researchers of the century.â€￾
But as the mere existence of this young man in front of me would suggest, the experiment was a failure, a fact revealed in a March 1997 article in the Archives of Adolescent and Pediatric Medicine. Authors Milton Diamond, a biologist at the University of Hawaii, and Keith Sigmundson, a psychiatrist from Victoria, British Columbia, documented how the twin had struggled against his imposed girlhood from the start. The paper set off shock waves in medical circles around the world, generating furious debate about the ongoing practice of sex reassignment (a procedure more common than anyone might think). It also raised troubling questions about the way the case was reported in the first place, why it took almost 20 years for a follow-up to reveal the actual outcome and why that follow-up was conducted not by Dr. Money but by outside researchers. The answers to these questions, fascinating for what they suggest about the mysteries of sexual identity, also bring to light a 30-year rivalry between eminent sex researchers, a rivalry whose very bitterness not only dictated how this most unsettling of medical tragedies was exposed but also may, in fact, have been the impetus behind the experiment in the first place.
In 1967, an anonymous baby boy was turned into a girl by doctors at Johns Hopkins Hospital. For 25 years, the case of John/Joan was called a medical triumph — proof that a child’s gender identity could be changed — and thousands of “sex reassignmentsâ€￾ were performed based on this example. But the case was a failure, the truth never reported. Now the man who grew up as a girl tells the story of his life, and a medical controversy erupts.
-The Rolling Stone, December 11, 1997. Pages 54-97
(For this article, he granted more than 20 hours of candid interviews and signed confidentiality waivers giving me exclusive access to a voluminous array of legal documents, therapists’ notes, Child Guidance Clinic reports, IQ tests, medical records and psychological work-ups. )

In 1973 and 1975, Dr. John Money of Johns Hopkins, a leading expert in pediatric psychoendocrinology and developmental psychology, reported the outcome as favorable. In the ensuing twenty years, the case of the penectomized twin has taken on immense significance; it is cited in numerous elementary psychology, human sexuality, and sociology texts. Most importantly, the case influenced medical thinking about treatment of hermaphroditic infants. Medical texts now recommend that boys born with a penis that is "too small" be reassigned as girls, just as the twin was.Surgeons remove their penises and testes and construct a vagina, and a pediatric endocrinologist administers hormones to facilitate female puberty.

But in fact, according to Diamond's report, the penectomized twin steadfastly refused to grow into a woman, and now lives as an adult man. She didn't feel or act like a girl. She often discarded the estrogen pills which were prescribed at age 12, and she refused additional surgery to deepen the vagina which surgeons had constructed at 17 months of age, despite Hopkins staff's repeated attempts to convince her that life would be impossible without it. "You're not gonna find anybody unless you have vaginal surgery and live as a female," the twin recalls a Hopkins physician telling her.
....
Although the Hopkins staff were aware of the twin's resistance to medical intervention intended to make a woman of him, for nearly two decades they have dismissed questions about the outcome of this important case because the twin was "lost to followup." In discussion following Diamond's presentation, sexologists expressed shock and dismay that they had been allowed continued to teach and to write that the penectomized twin had been successfully transformed into a woman, for twenty years after the care providers involved knew that the experiment had been a tragic failure. Vern Bullough, the distinguished historian, stood to denounce the Hopkins team and John Money as having acted unethically in the matter.

This should've been impossible should it not?

Are you in favor or against gender assigning surgeries to people with ill defined g3nitali@?

Born in 1921 in New Zealand, Money had come to America at about age 26, received his Ph.D. in psychology from Harvard and then joined Johns Hopkins, where his rise as a researcher and clinician specializing in sexuality was meteoric. Within a decade of joining Hopkins, he was already widely credited as the man who had coined the term “gender identityâ€￾ to describe a person’s inner sense of himself or herself as male or female, and was the world’s undisputed authority on the psychological ramifications of ambiguous genitalia.

Amazing isn't it, one of the founding pillars of what many a profesional believe... is based on things that are now proven to be nothing but lies...

But Money was not interested solely in intersexes. As he has stated often in his writings, he saw intersexual syndromes, which he called “experiments of nature,â€￾ chiefly as a way to learn about the sexual development of so-called normal humans. Thus, he immediately generalized his theories about intersexes to include all children, even those born without genital irregularities. “In the light of hermaphroditic evidence â€￾ he wrote in a 1955 paper that would become a classic in the field of sexual development, “it is no longer possible to attribute psychological maleness or femaleness to chromosomal, gonadal or hormonal origins. . . . The evidence of hermaphroditism lends support to a conception that, psychologically, sexuality is undifferentiated at birth and that it becomes differentiated as masculine or feminine in the course of the various experiences of growing up.â€￾ In simple terms, Money was advancing the view that all children form a sense of themselves as male or female according to whether they are dressed in blue or pink, given a masculine or feminine name, clothed in pants or dresses, given guns or Barbies to play with.

Do you agree or disagree with these views?

Money’s theory that newborns are psychosexually neutral was both unorthodox and against the current climate of science, which for decades had centered on the critical role of chromosomes and hormones in determining sexual behavior. But if his colleagues considered Money’s ideas to be science fiction, they weren’t prepared to say so publicly. His papers outlining his theory became famous in his field, helping not only to propel him to international renown as a sex researcher but also to speed his rise up the ladder at Johns Hopkins, where he ascended from assistant to associate professor of medical psychology, teaching his theory of infant sexual development to generations of medical students. By 1965, the year of John and Kevin Thiessen’s birth, Money’s reputation was virtually unassailable. He had for more than a decade been head of Hopkins’ Psychohormonal Research Unit (his clinic for treating and studying intersex kids), and he was shortly to help co-found Hopkins’ groundbreaking Gender Identity Clinic – a coup that helped earn him a reputation, says John Hampson, as “the national authority on gender disorder.â€￾

...
 
You know what Zidane? I am tired of this biological reductionist bullshit! I am tired of responding to every one of your posts asking you to provide examples of human instinct and the mechanism for their opperation while in return you only provide subjective tests where none of us can review all the materials to examin all factors involved that don't demonstrate what i am asking of you.

You continuing refusal to explain human instinct while asserting it exists because of some flawed genetic comparison to other species is stereotypical of biological reductionists.

You completely deny the major enfluence of enviroment in human behavior all the while posting reports you think back your claims but are open to much interpretation and are clearly corrupted as it is nearly impossibly to pull the subject out of reality to prevent them from being exposed to enviromental factors.

I am also rather irritated you simply brush aside the reports i posted to you that directly refuted your report on Fruit FLies which was conducted on rats as well as much of the other things you have stated.

Wrt to the tests done on identical twins how can you possibly look at the body of evidence infront of you and say gene determine sexualit orientation? It makes no sense that identical twins would share less than 100% likeliness to both be gay if genes determing sexual orientation. Identical twins share 100% the same genes! If they do why aren't they both gay if genes determine sexual orienation?! Explain this and stop dodging it. You are going to have to allow fow enviromental factors. If genes decided this alone both should be 100% likely. Even the scientists running the tests expected the result to be 100%. You didn't even bother to respond to what was mentioned within the reports i provided you. You simply can't reduce sexuality to a dimorpic existance as you are trying! You keep repeating over and over again there is someting in genetics (beyond the creation of a libido to help provide sex drive) that leads one to selecting a mate without providing what it could be. You try and reduce this discussion to selection between heterosexuality and homosexuality though other orientations exist! Hense you are trying to render sexuality into a dimorphic state which it is not.
 
You know, you keep saying I've ignored your information, but I haven't. I prefer to give you counter examples to disproving yours. I've agreed with you on the fact that the enviroment provides significant influences, that can alter ones behavior. I've agreed with you that many of the studies that've been done are indeed questionable, the gene region one, the twins, etc.

Still, I think that for example you've not disproven the fruit fly example. Only brought its relevance in sexuality to question. But it still remains as an example of more complex gene activity. Complex activity, as is suggested even in some of your sources.

You say I seem to categorize sexuality in a dimorphic view, and that I appear to be a reductionist. But I've given you ample examples showing that I do indeed believe that views that don't involve attraction towards one particular sex are possible. I've even given examples from intersexuals/hermaphrodites, etc. Showing you this is not the case. I do believe that attraction towards a particular sex, is seen throughout nature, and it's only logical for any genetically based inclination to follow suit.

It also seems you've agreed with me that there is genetic or if you like biological influence, but to me it seems you're the one that seems to diminish its importance. You appear to be in a way, the reductionist you claim I am, only in your case it's in favor of the enviroment.

I still think that my latest examples are not subjective. The fact will remain, that individuals who've refused sexual reassigment treatment exist. These cases can be reviewed and analyzed, but the mere existence of these individuals should be more than enough to indicate the existence of other factors.

PS

Again, I've accepted that there are many factors involved in sexual orientation. So I'm not being a reductionist, for I accept the influence of other factors.

My views about the natural inclination being towards a member of a particular sex, are so because that is the most logical thing to expect. For it seems to be the most beneficial for the species.

The last example was to show that many of the texts, and many of the views that seem to ignore the genetic influence on inclination/orientation, were greatly influenced by an unethical man throughout the decades. The case I provided was very famous, and very influential in particular. That is it wasn't just to show you a simple case, but to show that what seems like a man that appears to be a fundamental pillar for these views was corrupted.
 
zidane1strife said:
You know, you keep saying I've ignored your information, but I haven't. I prefer to give you counter examples to disproving yours. I've agreed with you on the fact that the enviroment provides significant influences, that can alter ones behavior. I've agreed with you that many of the studies that've been done are indeed questionable, the gene region one, the twins, etc.

Your counter examples are anything but. They are highly questiona;ble and include other outside influence which are enviromental factors.

The test done on twins isn't just questionable. identical twins share 100% the same genes. If genes alone decided sexual orientation they'd be 100% likely to both be gay or heterosexual. The fact bailey and pillard tested children from the same households is even more convincing there are exterior factors which caused their decisions. Considering they lived in the same household and probably shared much of the same in terms of experiences they'd have similiar stimuli affecting them. If any of these stimuli triggered some form of behavior instinct wrt sexual orientation they both should have been exposed to it.

It is indeed revealing their tests did not follow with the stipulations of genetics.

Still, I think that for example you've not disproven the fruit fly example.

oh? The rat example was very close to the nature of the tests done on fruit flies. Did you read what the psychiatrist had to say about the test and the nature of the researchers' assumptions?

Only brought its relevance in sexuality to question. But it still remains as an example of more complex gene activity. Complex activity, as is suggested even in some of your sources.

The psychiatrist i mentioned within my link discussed how this "complex activity" had no barings on human behavior and continue to demonstrate exactly why.

According to this hypothesis, high prenatal androgen levels during the appropriate critical period cause heterosexuality in men and homosexuality in women. Conversely, low fetal androgen levels lead to homosexuality in men and heterosexuality in women. This hypothesis rests largely on the observation that in rodents early exposure to hormones determines the balance between male and female patterns of mating behaviors displayed by adults. Female rodents that were exposed to androgens early in development show more male-typical mounting behavior than do normal adult females. Males deprived of androgens by castration during the same critical period display a female mating posture caused lordosis (bending of the back) when they are mounted.

Many researchers consider the castrated male rat that shows lordosis when mounted by another male to be homosexual (as is the female rat that mounts others). Lordosis, however, is little more than a reflex: the male will take the same posture when a handler strokes its back. Furthermore, the male that mounts another male is considered to be heterosexual, as is the female that displays lordosis when mounted by another female. Applying such logic to humans would imply that of two people of the same sex engaged in intercourse only one is homosexual--and which member of the couple it is depends on the positrons they assume.

In addition to determining rodent making patterns, early hormonal exposure determines whether an animal's brain can regulate normal ovarian function. A male rat's brain cannot respond to estrogen by triggering a chain of events, called positive feedback, that culminates in the abrupt increase of luteinizing hormone in the bloodstream, which in turn triggers ovulation. Some researchers reasoned from this fact to the idea that homosexual men (whose brains they allege to be insufficiently masculinized) might have a stronger positive feedback reaction than do heterosexual men.

Two laboratories reported that this was the case, but carefully designed and executed studies, most notably those of Luis J. G Gooren of the Free University in Amsterdam, disproved those findings. Furthermore, the feedback mechanism turns out to be irrelevant to human sexual orientation: workers have since found that the positive-feedback mechanism is not sexually dimorphic in primates, including humans. If this mechanism is indistinguishable in men and women, it is illogical to suggest that it should be "feminized" in gay men.

You say I seem to categorize sexuality in a dimorphic view, and that I appear to be a reductionist. But I've given you ample examples showing that I do indeed believe that views that don't involve attraction towards one particular sex are possible. I've even given examples from intersexuals/hermaphrodites, etc. Showing you this is not the case. I do believe that attraction towards a particular sex, is seen throughout nature, and it's only logical for any genetically based inclination to follow suit.

What you have provided are supposed explanations for how the human mind can have a preconceived notion of gender and have a genetically defined sexual orientation. Since your argument thusly has been concerning heterosexuality and homosexuality i am left to come to no other conclusion. Concidering human sexual orientation is a dynamic behavior which includes more than just feelings towards adult males/females you'd have to have a genetic explanation for pedophiles, necrophiliacs, etc etc.

It also seems you've agreed with me that there is genetic or if you like biological influence, but to me it seems you're the one that seems to diminish its importance. You appear to be in a way, the reductionist you claim I am, only in your case it's in favor of the enviroment.

Isn't this just the pot calling the kettle black? You try to offer explanations for why humans would have sexual orientation predisposition but can not provide evidence for such a theory. Likewise you can not provide evidence for human instinct.

The very reason i rate enviroment so highly is that it has been proven to have dramatic effects on people. The very basis of our psychology rests on many factors which are largely enviromental.

I still think that my latest examples are not subjective. The fact will remain, that individuals who've refused sexual reassigment treatment exist. These cases can be reviewed and analyzed, but the mere existence of these individuals should be more than enough to indicate the existence of other factors.

I completely disagree with your assessment that other factors outside of enviroment have to be the determing factors.

You mention that one of these individuals who refused the sexual reassignment treatment but do not igknowledge others have had sex changes and have altered their lives and life styles.

What were the reasonings for "rejecting" this reassignment? I haven't read over the whole history of the material you have presented but i do have a biography written by a psychiatrist affiliated with that person. I believe its the same man you mentioned as i do recall something to do with identical twins...

Whatever the causes this falls right back on the identical twins tests run by Bailey and Pillard, and Neil Whitehead. Whitehead proved that genetic causes for disease within identical twins would appear 100% of the time in both. This makes perfect sense as both share 100% the same genes. if there were a genetic predetermination to sexual orientation both should be homosexual or heterosexual 100% of the time. This is undeniable. I think it is safe to say there is an enviromental influence even if there is a genetic one (which is hard to believe considering identical twins share 100% the same genes). Likewise it is also safe to say one could make a choice as to which orientation they are as evident in the tests on twins.

PS

Again, I've accepted that there are many factors involved in sexual orientation. So I'm not being a reductionist, for I accept the influence of other factors.

Is it possible that what you think is genetic really is enviromental?

My views about the natural inclination being towards a member of a particular sex, are so because that is the most logical thing to expect. For it seems to be the most beneficial for the species.

How do you explain then sexual orientations such as necrophilia, pedophilia, etc etc? Is it logical to assume they are genetically influenced as well?

The last example was to show that many of the texts, and many of the views that seem to ignore the genetic influence on inclination/orientation, were greatly influenced by an unethical man throughout the decades.

Considering much of what you have presented seems to come from or mention conduct within the 1970s I find the allegations of lies quit striking indeed. The 70s and the 90s were eras in psychological history where some of the most bogus genetic experiments on humans were conducted (i mentioned quite a few who had their findings altered). Even the psychiatrist mentioned within the link i provided refers to the psuedoscience presented to the media by Dean Hammer by which gay propagandists foisted on society. It doesn't strike me as odd at all allegations of lies from the most one of the most corrupted divisions of psychology would be the battle cry biological reductionists and evolutionary psychologists. Afterall, they have to convince everyone to believe them.

But in fact, according to Diamond's report, the penectomized twin steadfastly refused to grow into a woman, and now lives as an adult man. She didn't feel or act like a girl. She often discarded the estrogen pills which were prescribed at age 12, and she refused additional surgery to deepen the vagina which surgeons had constructed at 17 months of age, despite Hopkins staff's repeated attempts to convince her that life would be impossible without it. "You're not gonna find anybody unless you have vaginal surgery and live as a female," the twin recalls a Hopkins physician telling her.

I see very statements like these as a very convincing reason there is an enviromental reasons for the lack of adaption. I would say forced surgeries would be very tramatic for a growing child. Also the rhetoric used by the doctor would most likely have an effect.
 
The existence of the genetic influence, cannot be defined by its success rate as if it were some simple genetic disease. Knowledge about its nature is of the utmost importance, does it vary in strength?, by how much?, what affects it? are questions that one must ask.

For if it does vary in strength, it is easy to see how many individuals with weaker influence, and their twins could easily vary in their orientations. You, should realize this, as we get into more and more complex areas that are affected by many genes, and by many factors, it becomes possible for even genetically identical individuals to have different outcomes.

If any of these stimuli triggered some form of behavior instinct wrt sexual orientation they both should have been exposed to it.

As I've said this does not cover all cases, if there exist weak genetic influence it could simply be up to personal choice... and as you know even the same individual with the same experience can indeed make a different choice.

The psychiatrist i mentioned within my link discussed how this "complex activity" had no barings on human behavior and continue to demonstrate exactly why.

NO it discusses how that complex mechanism has no barings on humans, which is subtly, but importantly different. While humans might not have that particular mechanism, that does not exclude the possibility of mechanisms of equal or greater complexity existing. That is why the importance of the example in showing that genes are involved in more elaborate activities still remains.

This makes perfect sense as both share 100% the same genes.

Not really, if we assume that the strength of the genetic influence is not absolute and can vary, the weaker it gets the more its affected by other factors... until you get to the point were it's up to personal choice, which cannot be predicted.

think it is safe to say there is an enviromental influence even if there is a genetic one (which is hard to believe considering identical twins share 100% the same genes). Likewise it is also safe to say one could make a choice as to which orientation they are as evident in the tests on twins.

Indeed it is so, as I accept. But, remember you should not make the fallacy of thinking such tests cover all possibilities in terms of the nature of any possible genetic influence.

It doesn't strike me as odd at all allegations of lies from the most one of the most corrupted divisions of psychology would be the battle cry biological reductionists and evolutionary psychologists.

Well, that particular case was one of the ones that changed books, views, and medical practices, against the biological models. It went as far as to say enviromental influence was the only factor involved, predicting success at sex reassigments.

I would say forced surgeries would be very tramatic for a growing child. Also the rhetoric used by the doctor would most likely have an effect.

Yes, in that case that could be the case. But what of others, where the surgeries were completed at a far earlier age. If even many of these are also traumatized just by the fact they were being raised as girls or boys is it not logical to think something else was influencing them? Is this not evidence for the existence of another factor?(Also let's not forget, the cases were there was minor social influence in the decision and still a tendency predominated in such societies.)
 
zidane1strife said:
The existence of the genetic influence, cannot be defined by its success rate as if it were some simple genetic disease. Knowledge about its nature is of the utmost importance, does it vary in strength?, by how much?, what affects it? are questions that one must ask.

It certainly can and has as have traits for eye colors etc. IF any gene factors were affecting these individuals it ought to effect them both. They are infact indentical twins who share 100% the same genes. I don't think you can find a better genetic comparison.

For if it does vary in strength, it is easy to see how many individuals with weaker influence, and their twins could easily vary in their orientations. You, should realize this, as we get into more and more complex areas that are affected by many genes, and by many factors, it becomes possible for even genetically identical individuals to have different outcomes.

How or why would it very in indentical twins Zindane? They share 100% the same genes. The strength of the affects should be identical for either twin.

As I've said this does not cover all cases, if there exist weak genetic influence it could simply be up to personal choice... and as you know even the same individual with the same experience can indeed make a different choice.

However if there is a genetic predertemination it should be impossible for them to make a choice. Its rather clear after reviewing the test if their are genetic influences they can't prevent people from making sexual orientation choices.

NO it discusses how that complex mechanism has no barings on humans, which is subtly, but importantly different. While humans might not have that particular mechanism, that does not exclude the possibility of mechanisms of equal or greater complexity existing. That is why the importance of the example in showing that genes are involved in more elaborate activities still remains.

I disagree. The animal/human comparisons are largely based off the assumption humans share instinct based sexual behaviors and that sexual orientation is dimorphic which are both clearly false assumptions. Based off these assumptions they travel up the slippery slope asserting we are X% similiar to said animal genetically thusly validating their false assumptions. From there they also try to demonstrate human brain structures are linked to sexual orientation predisposition, which have all ultimately failed. Again no one is disputing that genes are involved in sexuality which are just disagreeing on how much. The author of the page feels that gene influences are no where on par with enviromental influences and provides evidence as to why he feels that way.

Not really, if we assume that the strength of the genetic influence is not absolute and can vary, the weaker it gets the more its affected by other factors... until you get to the point were it's up to personal choice, which cannot be predicted.

Again Whitehead's tests showed genetic factors can be predicted with reasonable accuracy in identical twins who share 100% the same genes which are 100% in the same form.

Indeed it is so, as I accept. But, remember you should not make the fallacy of thinking such tests cover all possibilities in terms of the nature of any possible genetic influence.

I would assume however based on these tests if there are genetic influences they don't ultimately negate human choice. Enough tests have been down on twins to determine this. I would say it is also likely genetic influence is rather minor if present.

Well, that particular case was one of the ones that changed books, views, and medical practices, against the biological models. It went as far as to say enviromental influence was the only factor involved, predicting success at sex reassigments.

I disagree, even from your report there is a substantial reference to enviromental factors which influenced the life of the individual they were attempting to change. This test certainly did not change books either. You are overstating its affect on psychology, or at least, repeating their overstatement.

Yes, in that case that could be the case. But what of others, where the surgeries were completed at a far earlier age. If even many of these are also traumatized just by the fact they were being raised as girls or boys is it not logical to think something else was influencing them?

Not necessarily. It would be an assumption. However, i would like to add the report you posted isn't conclusive evidence of genetic influence at all. infact it mentions other sex change opportions that it fails to mention were failures. I am lead to believe they were successful. Infact successful sex change opportions do happen every year.

Is this not evidence for the existence of another factor?(Also let's not forget, the cases were there was minor social influence in the decision and still a tendency predominated in such societies.)

No, why would it be? There are plenty of sex change opporations which have taken place. For those that have failed, to assume there is a genetic reason would require ignoring those that have succeeded.
 
It certainly can and has as have traits for eye colors etc. IF any gene factors were affecting these individuals it ought to effect them both. They are infact indentical twins who share 100% the same genes. I don't think you can find a better genetic comparison.


But as I say, look at other cases, not all things that are influenced are 100% or nothing. Carrying certain genes might only mean a higher risk for cancer, cardiac problems, respiratory problem, the development of other diseases, etc.... Thus one twin might develop one and the other might not. (As for the eyes, although color stays, the iris pattern varies in twins, and even in the same person.)

There are many influential factors, and although genes do affect, the strength of their influence varies, and additional factors provide additional variation. If we assume that the genes of a particular pair of individuals have a weaker influence on their selection, the weaker it gets the easier other factors and personal choice overwhelm this influence.

How or why would it very in indentical twins Zindane? They share 100% the same genes. The strength of the affects should be identical for either twin.

I'm not saying it varies between them, but I'm saying that in general it could vary across the population, some individuals or twins could end up with a weaker influence.

However if there is a genetic predertemination it should be impossible for them to make a choice. Its rather clear after reviewing the test if their are genetic influences they can't prevent people from making sexual orientation choices.

No, people can still make a choice. If you require a bigger thrill to be able to get excited, it's still up to you. If you have violent tendencies is still up to you to make the choice. If you have sexual libido is still up to you to decide to be or not be celibate, even the esophagus, respiratory and other reflexes can be controlled to a certain degree with training.

Even if some individuals had an inclination towards members of a particular sex, and even if that inclination was very strong it could possibly be overcome by traumas, strong rigorous training, etc... Even the strongest and most addictive of drugs can be overcome with one's will.

Again no one is disputing that genes are involved in sexuality which are just disagreeing on how much. The author of the page feels that gene influences are no where on par with enviromental influences and provides evidence as to why he feels that way.

Yes, the degree of influence is what's in question here, and although brain structure correlations might not exist, other mechanism might be there. There is no way to prove either way, because even if there was one we cannot tell what its nature is or how it varies across the population. If it was weak in an individual, even a clone or twin could go either way in terms of orientation. Current biological evidence is not sufficient to conclude either way.

Again Whitehead's tests showed genetic factors can be predicted with reasonable accuracy in identical twins who share 100% the same genes which are 100% in the same form.

Yes, but not all can be predicted. The more genes involved, and the more complex the thing involved, the more unpredictable it becomes. There are cases were genes have been linked to a disease, but those carrying said genes are said to be at higher risk for said disease, not guaranteed to develop it.

I would assume however based on these tests if there are genetic influences they don't ultimately negate human choice. Enough tests have been down on twins to determine this. I would say it is also likely genetic influence is rather minor if present.

True, human choice ultimately exists. But it might be unknown how difficult it's for an unknown % of the population to overcome... even sexual desire can be overcome, one could develop an aversion towards sex.

You are overstating its affect on psychology, or at least, repeating their overstatement.

I do not know, we'd have to get psychologists from back then to see how influential that man truly was or wasn't.

No, why would it be? There are plenty of sex change opporations which have taken place. For those that have failed, to assume there is a genetic reason would require ignoring those that have succeeded.

It does not require ignoring genetic reasons, for genetics are not absolute. Although, a little sci-fi-ish the movie Gattaca manages to carry across this point quite effectively. You could clone a shy person, and even if there was some sort of genetic based tendency towards this, his twin or clone would not necessarily be shy too.

As for operations, what about those without an operation? Reports indicated that in a spanish country, I think the dominican republic, some men are born with recessed and extremely small sexual organs, thus they're often mistaken for females. These men are often raised as girls, yet many decide to be boys instead at puberty. Keep in mind they're still young, so why prefer girls as sexual partners when their enviromental influence has been entirely against this?

Also what I'm suggesting is that, although I do understand an adult changing his sexual orientation, what reason is there for a child? For example in the operations. True some operations are succesful, showing that genes are not absolute and that the enviroment is highly influential, but why do some fail? What sort of thing could be influencing these children that much to strongly go against their parents and society? I'd say it has to be some form of genetic influence, especially when we go back a few decades and there's less mass media or sex comments. It's the only thing I can think of that could affect a child that much to make him feel traumatized, and desiring to change at such an early age.
 
But as I say, look at other cases, not all things that are influenced are 100% or nothing.

True, a lot of things which are influenced have an eviromental component as well.

Carrying certain genes might only mean a higher risk for cancer, cardiac problems, respiratory problem, the development of other diseases, etc....

However testing for this gene within idnetical twins should be easy as they are both 100% likely to have it. On top of this assuming the twins have nearly the same experiences along with the same enviroments you ought to expect both individuals to share a high rate of either both being gay or both being heterosexual. B&P's test did not establish this.

Aside from this the argument has been pretty much disolved from genetic predisposition to genetic influence with a host of subjective material underlying varying conclusions. With the very nature of predisposition rendered dubious if not impossible one is left to debate infavor of influence
being triggered by outside stimuli. At this point you might as well admit enviromental factors are key in the development of sexual orientation.

A rather erroneus analogy to genes which may lead to cancer is far to weak to be used as a defense of sexual orientation genes at this point. Far to much now has been left to perception of the individual affected. This is becoming far to illogical. How could genes influence sexual orientation without working on some level of human perception and understanding? How would they influence one's decisions if not by ultimately deciding their orientation? The argument now seems to read as though various stimuli could trigger one to become gay while others could trigger them to become heterosexual. This is just far to simplistic a view of pyschology not to mention the nature of the stimuli is subjective and completely untestable as influencing a genetic trait.

Thus one twin might develop one and the other might not. (As for the eyes, although color stays, the iris pattern varies in twins, and even in the same person.)

Which takes us back to the argument concerning the human brain being developed by genes and dramatically redeveloped overtime by usage and the enviroment.

There are many influential factors, and although genes do affect, the strength of their influence varies, and additional factors provide additional variation. If we assume that the genes of a particular pair of individuals have a weaker influence on their selection, the weaker it gets the easier other factors and personal choice overwhelm this influence.

They were identical twins, sharing nearly identical lifestyles growing up in the same enviroments as their sibling. It would be safe to assume these influential factors should be shared accross the board. They simply didn't show correlation between being both either gay or straight.

It is also safe to say what you view as a genetic factor certainly has no direct evidence substantiating it. Any number of underlying biological factors could have been caused by the enviroment as well.

Either way to have identical twins sharing 100% the same genes ought to be 100% likely to be gay if your theories concerning gender recognition and sexual orientation predisposition are true. You argue there are different genetic strengths but these are identical twins sharing nearly identical enviroments and yet there is no correlation.

I'm not saying it varies between them, but I'm saying that in general it could vary across the population, some individuals or twins could end up with a weaker influence.

This is true but not to the point. As within the test there simply wasn't a correlation that would suggest genes were the deciding factor or even influencing their decisions. It would be easy to say at this point that enviromental factors are just being misconstrued to be genetic ones.

No, people can still make a choice. If you require a bigger thrill to be able to get excited, it's still up to you. If you have violent tendencies is still up to you to make the choice. If you have sexual libido is still up to you to decide to be or not be celibate, even the esophagus, respiratory and other reflexes can be controlled to a certain degree with training.

Well at least i am glad we both agree sex is not an instinct in humans. :rolleyes:

I still say you are taking this to far by you are entitled to your opinion.

Even if some individuals had an inclination towards members of a particular sex, and even if that inclination was very strong it could possibly be overcome by traumas, strong rigorous training, etc... Even the strongest and most addictive of drugs can be overcome with one's will.

Unfortunately there is little evidence at this time to substantiate there are genes which control sexual orientation or provide influence directly. If we wish to assume certain genes control or influence sexual orientation there needs to be a recognition that pedophilia, necrophilia and other persuasions should be recognized as having genetic influences as well. Infact the entire dynamic of human sexuality/sexual orientation would have to have specific genetic influences.


Yes, the degree of influence is what's in question here, and although brain structure correlations might not exist, other mechanism might be there. There is no way to prove either way, because even if there was one we cannot tell what its nature is or how it varies across the population. If it was weak in an individual, even a clone or twin could go either way in terms of orientation. Current biological evidence is not sufficient to conclude either way.

Unless a mechanism can be demonstrated within humans there really isn't any point in debating possibilities without evidence.

Yes, but not all can be predicted. The more genes involved, and the more complex the thing involved, the more unpredictable it becomes. There are cases were genes have been linked to a disease, but those carrying said genes are said to be at higher risk for said disease, not guaranteed to develop it.

I would say assuming you provide the subjects who share 100% likeness in genetics with similiar stimuli all of their lifes up to a given point you ought to see some correlation between exposure and symptoms.

True, human choice ultimately exists. But it might be unknown how difficult it's for an unknown % of the population to overcome... even sexual desire can be overcome, one could develop an aversion towards sex.

To assume this requires some level of enviromental influence. As the human brain ages it does infact cut off nueral pathways or develop certain parts of the brain as well as nueral path ways. The incapacity of an individual to stop a certain behavior may be nothing more than a simple reflection of this which came as a result of prolonged behavior intertwined with more classic psychological factors as conditioning.

Now you may argue by genetics certain people are more likely to become addited to certain sexual behaviors but this ought to apply accross the board. It would also not be a determing factor in their original orientation.

I do not know, we'd have to get psychologists from back then to see how influential that man truly was or wasn't.

Needless to say the material is rather subjective.

It does not require ignoring genetic reasons, for genetics are not absolute.

No, it would require ignoring the sex change opporations that succeeded.

Although, a little sci-fi-ish the movie Gattaca manages to carry across this point quite effectively. You could clone a shy person, and even if there was some sort of genetic based tendency towards this, his twin or clone would not necessarily be shy too.

Not later in life but they would share, as clones, equally likelyness to exhibit the same behavior assuming similiar enviroments and stimuli are provided them. So much so you could find a correlation.

As for operations, what about those without an operation? Reports indicated that in a spanish country, I think the dominican republic, some men are born with recessed and extremely small sexual organs, thus they're often mistaken for females. These men are often raised as girls, yet many decide to be boys instead at puberty. Keep in mind they're still young, so why prefer girls as sexual partners when their enviromental influence has been entirely against this?

Well, simply put i don't think they just decide at puberty to change their asserted orientation. This is to say genes do not suddenly relate to them they are male. This would be a rather difficult assertion to prove on a psychological level as it would require communication between the mind and genes.

How exactly are you supposing i can answer the proposed situation? I can not examine each of these children at every point in their lives to know what they are thinking about their sexuality and gender. Likewise neither can you. Without being to examine to examine them leaves the matter as inconclusive.

I think it is safe to assume not all of these boys who are being raised as girls decide to become boys. As in the reference from the Dr. Money report there had been other successful procedures.

Also what I'm suggesting is that, although I do understand an adult changing his sexual orientation, what reason is there for a child?

That is not what is being discussed in your link and scenerios. What is being discussed is the child is changing his gender.

For example in the operations. True some operations are succesful, showing that genes are not absolute and that the enviroment is highly influential, but why do some fail?

Could they possibly fail for enviromental reasons assuming just what you have asserted here?

What sort of thing could be influencing these children that much to strongly go against their parents and society?

As i mentioned before the talks with the Doctor as well as the forced surgeries which are quite obviously associated with the child's gender i'd say it would be safe to assume the child, over time, began to reject the treatment he was receiving and could possibly have begun to reject their implications of his feminity as well.

I'd say it has to be some form of genetic influence, especially when we go back a few decades and there's less mass media or sex comments. It's the only thing I can think of that could affect a child that much to make him feel traumatized, and desiring to change at such an early age.

I am sure on some level it does. For instance the boys levels of testosterone could have easily affected his behavior and lead him to reject forced feminity. Along with the surgeries and the implications of them as well as the rhetoric of the doctors we can derive a rather substantial case for enviromental influence.
 
Hmm, I don't quite follow. I admit to not having read most of this thread, its a tad boring :p

The twin test shows a statistical favor for genetic predisposition, NOT genetic causation. If it was the latter it would be close to 100%, as Legion pointed out. In fact, I think its pretty conclusive that there is no absolute gay gene.

The evidence for predisposition however lies in the percentage disparity between identical twins, fraternal twins, and normal siblings.

The assumption is that in a large enough sample, the environmental *delta* effects should go to zero, since all these data sets live in the same conditions, so one naively expects (if genetics play no part) that the percent incidence of homosexuality should all lie within a few error bars of each other. That its not, is evidence that something else is at play (eg some form of genetic favoritism), or that the assumption is wrong.

To be specific about the latter, assume for instance that identical male twins are born and they both look like girly. It might be that some households (for whatever reason) might institute policies that encourage homosexuality, precisely b/c of the appearance of the twins. That would render the study moot if it was a strong statistical factor, since different environmental conditions would be subjected to identical twin brothers, rather than fraternal brothers (where one might be girly and the other masculine) or regular siblings.
 
And if there were a Gay gene, what would be the Incestual behaviour gene? And the Polygamy gene? And the Paedophilia gene? And the Leather-fetish gene? And the S&M gene?

Also, which one would be the dominant gene? (dominant used in genetic terms hehehe)
 
The assumption is that in a large enough sample, the environmental *delta* effects should go to zero, since all these data sets live in the same conditions, so one naively expects (if genetics play no part) that the percent incidence of homosexuality should all lie within a few error bars of each other. That its not, is evidence that something else is at play (eg some form of genetic favoritism), or that the assumption is wrong.

As Whitehead pointed out they really hand no business setting up the test the way they did. They were clearly trying to take possible cases where siblings growing up in the same enviroments would experience the same stimuli so they could write this of as genetic determinism. B&P were very much aware of what they were doing. The fact is that we never had a clear picture of how these individuals grew up and what they were exposed to.

What really gets me is that Dean Hamer, Simon Levay, and B&P are all allowed to continue the practice after their completely fraudulent research and the following media fiasco.

How can you read Simon Levay's book and not be convinced he is reflecting on his own guilt when discussing the nature of modern research?

The evidence for predisposition however lies in the percentage disparity between identical twins, fraternal twins, and normal siblings.

I am going to have to disagree with you. Fraternal and normal siblings both share 50% the same genes. Notice that the adopted category was actually several percetage points higher then the normal siblings category. That should have struck anyone as odd.

Genetic causation/predisposition is an overstatement of possible genetic influence which i do not think this test shows as it fails to examine the effects of outside forces as B&P attributed all factors to genes.

Simply because there may be a genetic influence doesn't mean its a genetic influence to a particular form of sexuality. The frame work of this test did not allow for other forms of sexuality to be present or tested for. B&P tried to reduce sexuality to a two part system; heterosexuality and homosexuality. Also, sampeling for the test was highly scewed. B&P advertised for exactly what they were looking for in numerous homosexual media. This kind of controlled sampling is deplorable.

To be specific about the latter, assume for instance that identical male twins are born and they both look like girly. It might be that some households (for whatever reason) might institute policies that encourage homosexuality, precisely b/c of the appearance of the twins.

As Whitehead stated B&P didn't show whether or not twins have an inclination to mimic the other.
 
london-boy said:
And if there were a Gay gene, what would be the Incestual behaviour gene? And the Polygamy gene? And the Paedophilia gene? And the Leather-fetish gene? And the S&M gene?

Also, which one would be the dominant gene? (dominant used in genetic terms hehehe)


the leatherman gene... :LOL:
 
However testing for this gene within idnetical twins should be easy as
they are both 100% likely to have it.

Well, if there is/are a master gene(s) behind any influence, its not
necessarily easy to find, even with the use of twins. It won't be easy
to verify any likely candidate, when the factor involved is behavioral. There seem to be things that are passed on from generation to generation and do not follow regular hereditaty patterns, furthermore any influence on behavior can be affected by the enviroment, personality, and personal choices, and that influence could be weak in some cases.

Another thing is that in cases were the influence is very small, even with genetically identical individuals, such a small influence might not be easily measurable. In sexuality there is a lot of grey, and if you cannot accurately measure the effects of a particular set of genes, it WON'T be easy to verify any influence, IOW it won't be easy to find out which genes are involved.

At this point you might as well admit enviromental factors are key in
the development of sexual orientation.

Well, the enviroment does play a mayor role, even motor skills,
recognition skills, and a myriad of other things depend greatly on the
enviroment, anything that might have an influence on one's behavior is
subject to the enviroment from the molecular, nutritional, to the
societal and relational level.

How could genes influence sexual orientation without working on some
level of human perception and understanding? How would they influence
one's decisions if not by ultimately deciding their orientation? The
argument now seems to read as though various stimuli could trigger one
to become gay while others could trigger them to become heterosexual.
This is just far to simplistic a view of pyschology not to mention the
nature of the stimuli is subjective and completely untestable as
influencing a genetic trait.

If we were to assume that under certain stimuli, a particular outcome
would be certain, then yes it would be too simplistic, but that's not
the case. For example spatial reasoning is said tends to be higher in
males then in females, this could influence their professional
decisions towards areas of engineering, mathematics, and the like, but
this would not be a certainty. It's also been said that females tend
to be better at empathizing than males(for example, I've heard of baby
experiments, where the female ones tend to pay more measurable
attention to faces than males.), this could also influence their
careers and decisions, but no certainty would occur.

There's also intelligence, extroversion, eloquence, charm, etc. That
could affect any influence that might be there. If you'd like a better
analogy say twins had an influence towards shyness, violence, or the
like, they might not both end up the same. For example even if both
shared high intelligence, creativity, violent tendencies they might not
both end up... great scholars, artists, or criminals. It's been said
that even if you could clone Einstein, Beethoven, Hitler, etc... the
clone even in the areas were it might have genetic potential for a
particular development, might not develop so.


That is things like scholar achievement which might have a genetic influence with regards to intelligence, attention span, and the like, might have no correlation or a small correlation in some cases, even with twins and even under similar enviromental stimuli. The potential for something might be there, but a child could pay attention to wide variety of other things, and might decide to do something else entirely with his life.

Either way to have identical twins sharing 100% the same genes ought to be 100% likely to be gay if your theories concerning gender recognition and sexual orientation predisposition are true. You argue there are different genetic strengths but these are identical twins sharing
nearly identical enviroments and yet there is no correlation.

No, they might not ALL end up 100% towards one way or the other.
Some, those in which the influence towards inclination was strongest,
would most likely tend to end up either heterosexual or homosexual,
even with surgery or treatment. If we assume this influence on
inclination is weaker for some, those would probably have a far far
lower % of correlation, for it would be far easier to choose any
orientation, and thus more up to personal choice. Even those that had
a strong influence from either genes, enviroment or both, might not
correlate 100% for this is a behavior and thus influenced by many things, and is up to choice.

This is true but not to the point. As within the test there simply
wasn't a correlation that would suggest genes were the deciding factor
or even influencing their decisions. It would be easy to say at this
point that enviromental factors are just being misconstrued to be
genetic ones.

Well, I think it does go to the point. If the influence towards
orientation is weak in some, either from enviroment, genes or both,
those twins CANNOT be expected to make the same choice, no correlation can be expected in such cases. The experiment
dealt with several sets of twins, the possibility that some were under
weak influence cannot be discarded. The experiment could serve as
evidence against strong completely genetic influence across the
population(if done correctly, but not like it was done.), but not against one influence that is affected by the enviroment and can vary in strength, and ultimately CANNOT completely un-do choice. Again, even strong influence, even from both enviroment and genes would not yield the exact response from both twins for we're dealing with behavior, and this is affected by personality and personal choices.

That is to say that individuals with weak genetic influence, and with a weak influence from the enviroment towards sexuality would have no correlation even if they shared the same genes and enviroment.

Unfortunately there is little evidence at this time to substantiate
there are genes which control sexual orientation or provide influence
directly. If we wish to assume certain genes control or influence
sexual orientation there needs to be a recognition that pedophilia,
necrophilia and other persuasions should be recognized as having
genetic influences as well. Infact the entire dynamic of human
sexuality/sexual orientation would have to have specific genetic
influences.

Not necessarily specific. Any genes that affect a persons physical or
mental traits, like intelligence, ability to empathize, ability to
accept new enviroments, etc. can influence a person's sexuality in many
ways.

I would say assuming you provide the subjects who share 100% likeness in genetics with similiar stimuli all of their lifes up to a given
point you ought to see some correlation between exposure and symptoms.

It depends on the nature of what's affected, and how truly close it
comes to the definition of a disease. Another thing is, even in the
same enviroment, stimuli will not be 100% the same in the real world,
this is important especially with regards to things like behavioral
developments or illnesses. Again, it also depends on the degree of the influence, a 20-30% increase in risk, would still yield individuals with and without the disease under similar stimuli.

Not later in life but they would share, as clones, equally likelyness
to exhibit the same behavior assuming similiar enviroments and stimuli
are provided them. So much so you could find a correlation.

This would be so if you isolated the individuals with that particular
influence. If you took the general population, the strength of the
influence would vary greatly, and you would not find correlation in
many cases when influence is weak, either enviromental, genetic or
both. You'd have to isolate and use those identified with the
influence, to be able to search for correlation, and this cannot be done
with sexuality, for any genetic influence has not been identified.

Well, simply put i don't think they just decide at puberty to change
their asserted orientation. This is to say genes do not suddenly relate
to them they are male. This would be a rather difficult assertion to
prove on a psychological level as it would require communication
between the mind and genes.

How exactly are you supposing i can answer the proposed situation? I
can not examine each of these children at every point in their lives to
know what they are thinking about their sexuality and gender. Likewise
neither can you. Without being to examine to examine them leaves the
matter as inconclusive.

It would not require genes directly speaking with the mind. Any
mechanism that could subconsciously identify the sex of others, and
elicit the sexual areas in response to those from a particular one
would suffice.

IMO, you'd require something strong to cause some of the children to
go against society and any possible backlash. A genetic influence if
strong in some, could cause some of these individuals to do so. There
would be cases were the enviroment would overcome the influence, with
less enviromental influence required the weaker the genetic influence,
thus as you've said there would be success in many cases.

That is not what is being discussed in your link and scenerios. What is being discussed is the child is changing his gender.

Well, true. But you have to admit he's going against the orientation
one might expect given the way he was raised and society treated him,
that is the cultural enviromental influence.

Could they possibly fail for enviromental reasons assuming just what you have asserted here?

Well, yes. But it would be counter-intuitive in many of those cases, for most females and males tend not to be traumatized or change gender if raised as members of a gender. It would be a case of minor influence versus the mayor one from society and such. I'd think it would be very difficult for a child to be traumatized or bent on change against society's expectations due to a trivial influence.

IMO, I wouldn't find trivial and minor enviromental influence from an outside source an acceptable explanation for a massive behavioral change in a significant number of children. Making them rebel against parents and society or become traumatized, would, I'd say, require something significantly influencing the psyche.

As i mentioned before the talks with the Doctor as well as the forced surgeries which are quite obviously associated with the child's gender i'd say it would be safe to assume the child, over time, began to
reject the treatment he was receiving and could possibly have begun to
reject their implications of his feminity as well.

I am sure on some level it does. For instance the boys levels of
testosterone could have easily affected his behavior and lead him to
reject forced feminity. Along with the surgeries and the implications
of them as well as the rhetoric of the doctors we can derive a rather
substantial case for enviromental influence.

There are cases, as I pointed out were the surgeries might have been completed at a far earlier age, and if they thought the child carried the right chromosomes for a particular gender, no additional visits to the doctor with regards to sexuality would be necessary.Leaving things open for a normal childhood if raised as members of a particular sex, the fact that this is not so... That a significant portion rejects this, even as children should raise not just some eyebrows, but in addition some questions.

The fact is that we never had a clear picture of how these individuals grew up and what they were exposed to.

Genetic causation/predisposition is an overstatement of possible genetic influence which i do not think this test shows as it fails to examine the effects of outside forces as B&P attributed all factors to genes.

Simply because there may be a genetic influence doesn't mean its a genetic influence to a particular form of sexuality.

Indeed, the experiments are not adequate to begin with. And as I've said, behavioral traits cannot be expected to correlate between all twins drawn out of a general population. For the influence on a particular trait will vary in strength, and might be overcome by other traits, and enviromental stimuli with various degrees of ease or difficulty. Experiments that could be done to truly see the influence, would require isolating the genetic influence and then testing it against several enviroments, which would be difficult.

I'll give you a few example of non-sexuality related genetic influence on sexuality, so you can better picture how genes can affect behavior better. Say, the child's body reacts nervously(uncontrollable sweat, shaking, difficulty speaking, etc.) when sexually attracted, and is raised and expected to be attracted to members of a particular sex. When around said members he can't control his body, and feels uncomfortable, thus he prefers to be around members of the sex towards which he's not attracted. Eventually as he matures, this develops into being able to be stimulated sexually by members of said sex because he's not nervous with them, as he wasn't expected in childhood to engage in a relationship with them.

Another example would be a person that might have difficulty relating to others, say for being autistic to a certain degree or less intelligent. Such a person might be made fun of and feel rejected by others. He might develop sexual aversion towards these people, and might be more at ease with objects, or with himself, he might actually develop sexual attraction towards a particular type of object, or towards his body.
 
As i said before there really isn't any reason to respond. This argument has digressed to a level of assuming there is a possibly genetic factor when all the psychological research presented suggests a rather large envolvment of enviromental factors. We both agree ultimately genes do not decide your sexual orientations or behaviors. They may however contribute to forming of ones sexuality (which again on various levels we agree) however sexuality is not a dimorphic occurance. So, it is very possible if there is a perceived genetic influence to orientation it could likewise apply accross the board. Thus rendering the predisposition argument moot.

At this point any opposition to enviromental factors is really just an argument of nonfacts based mainly on assumptions of correlation. Thusly, i feel no need to continue responding as the particular nature of the argument has become unverifiable quest to make bridges between various elements of our psychology which are linked to enviroment (ie cham, intelligence, etc) in an attempt at showing a genetic basis. These again are not response to allegations to issues concerning genetic predisposition and an influence in determining perception.
 
You say "assumptions", I still disagree, it seems we will have to wait for further evidence to reach any conclusion in favor or against. My view remains that throughout society, there are many indications of said influence. I've not argued against enviromental influence, but suggested that more or less of such influence might be required depending on the other factors involved...

I've heard several scientists mention how often times it can take more than a decade for a strongly accepted theory to be overthrown in the presence of contradictory evidence, by members of a particular field. I know not of the total evidence, but my constant exposure to scientific journals suggest it's currently gathering in favor of the existence of a genetic influence that plays a role as one of the factors in sexuality.

Many fields, even in biology have not been close to accurate for the past few decades, as indicated by findings like these...

But in a study published in October, California researchers identified 54 genes that play a role in the expression of sex -- before hormones are ever released.

"This refutes the idea that hormones are the only story in sexual differentiation of the brain. That has been the dogma in the field for 30 years," said lead researcher Dr. Eric Vilain, assistant professor of human genetics and urology at the David Geffen School of Medicine at UCLA.

As we begin to better understand the nature of the body, any possible influence will become more evident.

The 54 genes may also help explain transgenderism. That condition, which affects about one in 50,000 people, is characterized by the feeling that one was born the "wrong" sex. Some transgendered individuals simply live as the gender they feel they are, regardless of anatomy; others have sex-change surgery.

Things like these suggest there might be genes involves, such low percentages(0.00002% if accurate.) give further hints that something besides the enviroment might be involved.

I guess it will take further understandings of genetics for us to get a truly conclusive agreement in favor or against such influence, thankfully such knowledge doubles every 4-5yrs, so it won't be long before can reach such a thing... I look foward to it.
 
i just think this will go back and forth pointlessly. We both agree there are genetic factors we just disagree on how much they affect sexual orientation. However we both agree enviromental factors do effect orientation as well.

PS i'd be careful when refering to Vilain's study. I suspect it may be fraudulent.


More on Vilain

http://www.narth.com/docs/press1.html
http://www.gcc.edu/news/faculty/editorials/throckmorton_ofmiceandgaymen_10_21_03.htm


According to Dr. Throckmorton, all this study "really suggests is that genes may play a role in creating differences in male and female brains. This not news; researchers have known this for a long time." Throckmorton says this study has nothing to do with the formation of sexual orientation. (Dr. Throckmorton is Director of College Counseling and an Associate Professor of Psychology at Grove City College.)

NARTH Vice President Dr. Byrd notes that media reports have failed to note that this study was conducted on mice, not on human beings. Says Dr. Byrd, "There is no animal model that accurately reflects human sexuality. Pigs don't date, ducks don't go to church and mice don't fall in love."

Did you know this test wasn't conducted on humans?

I've heard several scientists mention how often times it can take more than a decade for a strongly accepted theory to be overthrown in the presence of contradictory evidence, by members of a particular field.

This seems to apply quite accurately with the genetic arguments for sexual orientation.

Even today we have reports from researchers like the one from Vilain who are using the media to spin their finding to deiminate misinformation. I see this as the objective of many of the proponents of genetic sexual orientation.

I know not of the total evidence, but my constant exposure to scientific journals suggest it's currently gathering in favor of the existence of a genetic influence that plays a role as one of the factors in sexuality.

As it was in the 1970s after which it died out until around the early 90s. I suspected its just apart of cycles fueled by scientists with specific agendas. Such psychological partisanship dates back to the early 20th century with the appearance of instinct theory.

If you wish to email Dr. Warren Throckmorton his email is ewthrockmorton@gcc.edu
 
Well, I suspected it might be, but wasn't sure it was done on animals, most likely mice.

But anyway

PS i'd be careful when refering to Vilain's study. I suspect it may be fraudulent.

No, I don't think it is, it's only been given a media spin, partly because of an interview the guy had, which they quoted... I'm sure if it'd been compromised, we'd have heard by now. Still, it's amazing to believe how many sites don't actually state it wasn't done on humans, and actually deleted the article later on.

As it was in the 1970s after which it died out until around the early 90s. I suspected its just apart of cycles fueled by scientists with specific agendas. Such psychological partisanship dates back to the early 20th century with the appearance of instinct theory.

Don't confuse that era with this one... That was an era of misinformation, this is an era were we've got genomes, and soon proteomes, and knowledge about molecular biology is exploding... Although it seems some people still like to hasten that which must not be hastened, like homologues to those genes that will likely be found(rest asured, they'll most likely be found -... for more than 98% of mouse genes have a homologue in man and, within proteins, there is ~70% identity between mouse and man.).

It's going to be interesting to see how things develop. Although you suggest the cycle might continue, rest assured knowledge about the nature of the human body will settle this dispute in a few decades, the cycle will come to an end.

PS No, thanks for the e-mail, but i don't wish to e-mail him.

PPS

I still think it will be knowledge of genetics that will be what will help settle this in the coming decades... Genes, most don't realize that just a few changes here and there can have drastic consequences, while leaving striking similarities in the other areas. Look at dogs for example their drastic physical differences are obtained with no massive change throughout their genomes or look at humans 99.9% identical, yet look at the differences in the different races and the like.

ed
 
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