there is this question messing with my head recently I ve made lots of thoughts about it and I ve came up with many conclusiosn. The problem is although it seems logical whenever I talk about it with my proffessors I get mixed answers and they usually deny it and tell me its wrong.
Each of them deny it for different reasons but I dont quite get it. I still see a hole. Perhaps I am wrong perhaps they dont quite get my point because they have formed already an impression of how economy works that isnt letting for a different approach that could be right, or perhaps I am not good at explaining what's bothering me.
Today I was even being told by a proffesor of mine that I am using Marxist theory when I didnt base it at all on it.
Now for the basic question from which it all begun.
We know that every product developed for consummption includes in its price the cost of labor and the cost of capital. With other words Labor wages and Capital revenues or profit.
The total value of total product equals the marginal product of Labor and marginal product of Capital.
TP=w*L+ r*K
Important notes and assumptions:
1)With capital I dont mean human capital.
2)In labor I include the wages of highly paid participants like the owner of the firm.
3)To make things simpler lets assume that we live in a society where we have only one firm that produces for example one product like cheese in which only and all of its residents work there
Now if the total product in the market whether it is a service or a good includes in its market price both the value of productivity of labor and capital then the question is how are all goods and services (in this case all the cheese) going to be bought, to pay back fully both capital and labor when the only consumer of cheese are the residents of that country?
The firm in other words produced a bigger value of total cheese but less can be bought to pay back fully capital and labor.
Now whats wrong here?
Today the proffesor told me that the capital also consumes cheese. When I asked how he told me about rents. I didnt get the connection. How does capital consumes through rent?
If capital is being rent from the firm then the firm must have enough returns from sales to pay back the renter. If the firm rents capital to someone else, then that someone else must have the income to pay both for cheese and the rent.
Each of them deny it for different reasons but I dont quite get it. I still see a hole. Perhaps I am wrong perhaps they dont quite get my point because they have formed already an impression of how economy works that isnt letting for a different approach that could be right, or perhaps I am not good at explaining what's bothering me.
Today I was even being told by a proffesor of mine that I am using Marxist theory when I didnt base it at all on it.
Now for the basic question from which it all begun.
We know that every product developed for consummption includes in its price the cost of labor and the cost of capital. With other words Labor wages and Capital revenues or profit.
The total value of total product equals the marginal product of Labor and marginal product of Capital.
TP=w*L+ r*K
Important notes and assumptions:
1)With capital I dont mean human capital.
2)In labor I include the wages of highly paid participants like the owner of the firm.
3)To make things simpler lets assume that we live in a society where we have only one firm that produces for example one product like cheese in which only and all of its residents work there
Now if the total product in the market whether it is a service or a good includes in its market price both the value of productivity of labor and capital then the question is how are all goods and services (in this case all the cheese) going to be bought, to pay back fully both capital and labor when the only consumer of cheese are the residents of that country?
The firm in other words produced a bigger value of total cheese but less can be bought to pay back fully capital and labor.
Now whats wrong here?
Today the proffesor told me that the capital also consumes cheese. When I asked how he told me about rents. I didnt get the connection. How does capital consumes through rent?
If capital is being rent from the firm then the firm must have enough returns from sales to pay back the renter. If the firm rents capital to someone else, then that someone else must have the income to pay both for cheese and the rent.
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