Silent_One said:
Natoma wrote:
There is a stark difference.
Not really. You like to use definitions to fit you argument(s).
Not at all. I used the primary definition for natural.
Silent_One said:
100 years ago the dictionary could have easily said marriage is a man and woman of the same race.
But it didn't.
Natoma wrote:
I go by what is defined by Webster.
(see above link)
You don't know that.
But again, you want to quibble semantics that's fine. I can play that game well when forced to, which I had to in the natural thread, but I don't like to. It's petty and ridiculous.
What I stated was for example purposes only, not as an end all be all. That is the stark difference that I referred to in my prior post.
Silent_One said:
You, however, have professed preference for the institution which confers the social and legal dependence on each other as well as society's.. And the closest definition to that is a.) above. All other definitions have flaws insofar as being too broad in meaning by not recognizing the legal aspects of marriage, or indeed, as No. 4 points out, no legal aspects........
And that is why your interpretation is flawed
If you really want to get nitpicky, it says
usually no legally aspect, not flatly
no legal aspects, as you inferred, which means that there is a strict opening to bring about the legal benefits for gays and lesbians without actually changing the definition of marriage.
Also, the definition speaks nothing regarding the social dependence on one another. Just the legal. If you
really want to get nitpicky, the social implications of marriage have no bearing on changing the definition of marriage because it hasn't been defined in the first place. The only change of definition wrt to marriage is wrt the legal aspects, and that's a semantical "maybe".
But of course anti-gay marriage proponents would not make this argument, that gay marriage has no effect on changing the social status of marriage, would they? All if you want to get nitpicky.