So my question is: how did they do it? Or is it just financial smoke and mirrors?
For those who lean towards the cynical, it's impossible to say with 100% certainty so long as a sizeable "one time charge" like that is on the report. That's why "GAAP" exists, after all, to minimize leeway for hanky panky. (Which, I should add, I am not accusing anyone at AMD of engaging in such tactics).
But assuming we've now seen the last of the one time charges for awhile, 1Q should confirm these numbers.