Ya, right, great display of deep genetic understanding here. 100% identical genes means there's no possibility of different behaviour
especially in so complex a phenomenom that as you point out is very difficult to define. Environment also plays a small part in behaviour you know.
Caps if the orienation were a genetically enforced disposition there would be no room for differences in behavior.
Accounting for a 50% error rate of the identical twins doesn't coincide with a small amount of enviromental influence.
Infact all of the categories feel way below the expected rates.
Even Bailey and Pillard expected the indentical twins to be 100%.
Didn't prove and unverified does not equal "a complete sham and a horrible resource". The Xq28 theory wasn't the only info there.
Oh come off it. They proffered the Xq28 myth (which is a complete fabrication on behalf of Hamer) and the twins tests. There was nothing else on your site worth mentioning. Both of these issues have been completely refuted and the Xq28 matter almost cost Hamer is job.
You webpage is knowingly presented misinformation rendering its credibility nill.
Similiar twin studies found similiar results.
Your website NEVER mentioned any twins tests what so ever.
The differences and problems with methodology, consistency and proof lies in the uncontrolably small samples, difficult definitions and difficult precision when dealing with such a subject.
I myself presented a number of twins tests which proved there was no correlation between genetic likeness and sexual orientation. The absolute lack of correlation proves enviroment is the major contributing factor to sexual orienation.
Your webpages never mentions any twins tests yet above you assert there are some which support their claims.
From another site:
http://www.dennis.floripa.com.br/homosexual.htm
Probably due to their recentness, few attempts have been made to replicate these studies of biological differences, so we must be cautious about accepting them. More often replicated have been family, twin and adoption studies suggesting genetic inheritance of homosexuality (Whitam et al. 1993; Bailey and Pillard 1991; Buhrich et al. 1991; Eckert et ali. 1986; Pillard and Weinrich 1986; Flores 1994).
Notice here there are works specifically cited, and there are a few of them, wether thier work is 100% accurate may be in question but not the overall "tendencies" of the results.
Notice Bailey and Pillard's test was one of the tests I and my webpages completely refuted.
Notice i presented my own tests which demonstrate complete lack of correlation while you present webpages referencing tests without posting results.
Notice the tests mentioned in your webpages are over 10 years old.
Here a quote from your webpages:
Biological studies have documented differences between male homosexuals and heterosexuals in their exposure to prenatal hormones (Levay 1994; Reinisch et al. 1991), brain structures (LeVay 1994), genetic markers (Hamer et al. 1993), and possibly other characteristics such as fingerprint patterns (see Downtown 1995 with regard to a University of Western Ontario study), possibly related to testosterone exposure (Jamison, et al. 1993). In addition, effeminate boys (who have a strong tendency to become adult homosexuals) are judged more attractive than other boys (Zucker, et al. 1993) which corresponds to Green's (1987) finding that parents of effeminate boys rated these as more "beautiful" babies than their other children
Yet again you bring forth a webpage which presents completely false information. Both LeVay and Hamer's work where thuroughtly refuted within my articles. Hamer's works is indisputably false. This has been known for over a decade. Your webpage is clearly out of date or deliberately misinformating its readers.
Consider wording like "Probably due to their recentness" this was an article written a long time ago rehashed and stuck on a webpage.
The comments section internally and externally refuted:
Comment: The authors of the original paper have criticised the new research for not restricting the study group to families where there was an indication of X-linked inheritance of homosexuality, that is transmission of the trait via the mother. They say that the lack of this criterion would tend to obscure a true X-chromosome linkage operating in a subset of homosexuals. Only further research will show whether this criticism is justified, but for the present it seems that in the homosexual population as a whole, inheritance of a homosexual tendency via the X chromosome is not a major factor. The magnitude of any genetic effect on homosexuality remains uncertain. 11/5/99
http://www.beyond3d.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=11266&postdays=0&postorder=asc&start=200
The Xq28 has recently been called the 'gay gene,' but Hamer has not identified a particular gene, nor has he established what percentage of the gay male population could carry the gene. The study determined that the Xq28, a large area, could possibly contain sequences of genes that are linked to homosexuality. Establishing a link in this subset of gay men does not mean these markers cause homosexuality, because the mechanism for this is not known."
http://www.northwestern.edu/neurobiology/faculty/allada2/gbbpapers/RiceEbers99.pdf
Just because there is criticism doesn't mean the criticism is correct, and if it is, doesn't disprove the more general idea of genetic tendency.
It was far more than just cirticism. There were a number of test which completely refuted the Xq28 theory and your article does not refute any one of these tests. It seems adds the authors opinions.
notice what your own quote says:
In 1993 the announcement of evidence for a "gay gene" on the X chromosome generated enormous publicity. In contrast, the recent publication of research failing to support this link has been greeted with silence by the news media. Rice and colleagues [Rice, G. et al. (1999) Science 284, 665-667 (Abstract)] studied 52 homosexual pairs of siblings to see if any shared alleles in the relevant part of the X chromosome more often than would be expected by chance. They didn't.
Notice your article also doesn't mention Ebers' tests
here is a quote from one of my articles:
Finally, in 1999, George Rice and George Ebers published their data. In the April edition of Science, the scientists show that their results, “do not support an X-linked gene underlying male homosexuality†(Rice et al., 1999 and Wickelgren, 1999). They found that the gay brothers looked at by the Hamer group were no more likely to share the Xq28 markers than would be expected by chance. This officially sounded the death-knell for the optimism held by Hamer et al. and others looking in this region for the gene leading to homosexuality.
So no, these are not just mere criticisms. They are thorough refutations. Hamer likewise hasn't ever repeated his tests successfully. Its rather obvious it was a sham from the start.
Notice the bulk of the APA, the press and other psychological groups got involved and allegations of Hamer's integrity surfaced. This is not usual occurance. They obviously had balid grounds to pursue allegations against Hamer.
Because the authour was lazy, or perhaps the work was of sufficient quality that support was understood and citing wasn't deemed necessary. Also please note that the word "partly" was used. Though I understand this does go against your deep understanding of genetics.
Lets take the most obvious route. The information wasn't given to supress criticism. This is the only valid explanation to present misinformation.
Your site lied about Hamer's research and what it indicated so i have no doubts your the author is deliberately attempting to mislead readers. No supporting evidence is given ergo it is not trustworthy.
http://encyclopedia.thefreedictionary.com/Genetic basis for homosexuality
As you can see the test lack consistant or correlation. If the matter were driven by genetics how could you have a 0% consistancy within the test :? ?
Thank you for presenting this information again. This matter has been apart of my argument from the begining. You do not seem to know what this means. It does not support your position and here is why:
What the author is saying is that when a definition of homosexuality is applied the prevelance of homosexuality in society becomes low. The reason for this is because our definitions of homosexuality are arbitrary and unscientific. This lends even more error into a testing scenerio. This renders testing homosexuality and a possible genetic origin nearly impossible because of the nature of bias of testers and a complete lack of aggreement over what a homosexual is.
All in all this supposition heavily refutes twins testing.
To expect high degrees of correlation and consistancy with these small and difficult to control/define studies is unrealistic. As already noted that doesn't mean that larger patterns are not valid, just not necessarily accurate to a high degree. From your own link above:
But, humorously you and your website mentioning twins tests as though they prove something. Considering the nature of the lack a consistant understanding of what homosexuality is and a definition there of it would be nearly impossible to say there is a genetic disposition here for homosexuality.
More over twins tests indicate that homosexuality, as described by the testers, clearly show lacking consistancy with other heritable traits and even other tests.
Despite your desire to down play this impact it shows quite a bit about the enviromental impact on sexual orientation.
Regardless of how you try and spin the matter a 0% correlation is damned difficult to explain wts to a genetically inherited trait.
http://encyclopedia.thefreedictionary.com/Genetic basis for homosexuality
One problem is that, for most definitions, the prevalence of homosexuality in the general population is low, which means that registries will contain relatively few twin pairs of which one is gay or lesbian. The lack of statistical power resulting from this may explain some of this lack of consistency.
AND further from your own link above:
Overall, data appear to indicate that genetic factors play some role in the development of sexual orientation, but that they probably account for only a minority of variation and that further work will be needed to quantify their influence more precisely.[size]
Notice the author states some and for only a minority of variation. What that genetic influence is or if it is unique to homosexuality was clearly not defined or explained throughout any of the tests presented by the author.
The author clearly stands against your position genetics play a major role and is indicated in his speach.
Even the author admitts the issue is not resolved and could be proven wrong. He does not deny the possibility. He is simply reviewing the information put before him.
This is a faulty criticism. A small group MAY represent a larger one, its a question, not a disproof.
It is in no way a faulty criticism and here is why:
First off Pillard used biased sampeling
he sampled from tainted sources
he didn't bother to substatiate claims
His sample was far to small
And his result fell far below his expected outcomes.
The part where concordance of natural and adopted brothers homosexuality rates is concluded to "strongly suggests that it is entirely environmental in origin,..." is incorrect as this could very simply mean that environment CAN play a large role but does not necessarily exclude other (genetic) influences where obviously there isn't such a pattern.
It is clearly correct despite your assertions. The fact is proven by the failing correlation to the expected results. Since the matter clearly does not fit with the expected genetic results only enviroment remains. His rebuttle is both fair and accurate.
Also, if you wish to challenge the reliability of the data, this conclusion may be based on slightly inaccurate sampling. Can't have it both ways you know. See your own quote below.
Not having it both ways. My rebuttle already mentions his sampeling was completely biased. Even though this was so his results failed to meet his expectations. Whether or not he sampled correctly doesn't address the issue of why his values didn't correlate with his desired results.
I have mentioned a number of other twins tests which further foment the notion of lacking genetic correlation. So no i am not having it both ways, I am mentioning this man "cheated" and failed evne when cheating .
Ok, so I guess that Xq28 part maybe/is wrong. Again, doesn't disprove the general idea of genetic influence though. In fact, again from your own material:
May be wrong? Come on. They were going to completely humliate Hamer by releaving his absolute lack of scientific integrity. The author of your website has to be painfully aware of this material being that it is apart of a COLLEGE resource. This is apart of the reason why i stated the author of your page was CLEARLY misleading his readers.
It doesn't disprove it what it demonstrates is the complete lack of integrity within the gay scientific lobby.
Ouch indeed. Do you read your own references?
Of course i do. They agreed Hamer was presenting fraudulent information.
Whether or not the testers believe homosexuality is inherited is irrelevant to this conversation as their beliefs were not the issue being reviewed in their tests.
Good to not bring in religion on this, agreement!
Show me where "many were clearly fabricated" though, besides Hamers xq28 claim. LeVay's findings have not been reproduced, they haven't been proven fraudulent.
LeVay's work was indeed proven fraudulent and Pillard's twins tests were revealed for having bias sampeling, poor sample sizes, altering of data etc etc. Much of this was already discussed within my links. LeVay was driven by his agenda nad emotions and clearly lacked any scientific reason. he felt he was on to something and ran with it.
Here is an article pointing out the completely ass backwards logic of LeVay:
http://my.voyager.net/~jayjo/borngay.htm
http://www.mith2.umd.edu/WomensStudies/ReadingRoom/AcademicPapers/levay-critique
I assumed from the other similiar cited pieces I found that the results were valid,
And wrongly so. You suggest they were "similiarly cited" without knowing which ones were cited at all. How do you know they weren't similiarly citing the same misinformation?
at least in showing some genetic tendency. However I will allow for some doubt now if that makes you happy. Your own expert references seem to agree with me though.
Actually no they don't. One of the authors you cited above as stated genetic influence affects an small minority and is limited in its affect on orientation. This does not support your belief sexual orientation is a genetic predisposition or that genetics plays a major role.
Disproven where? Again see your own references !!!!!!!! Open your eyes.
OMG, the author of your webpage is knowingly presenting false information as true. So no, i haven't an ounce trust in his integrity and feel no need to address his completely arbitrary and obviously tainted perspective and psuedofacts.
No I didn't and don't, actually.
Why not? You brought up religious bias why don't you wish to discuss homosexual bias?
This would be presumed correct statistically.
No not at all. It was a mere guess. This is not even basically scientific.