patroclus02
Newcomer
Hi,
I don't think I understand why Intel PIII CPU is considererd to be a 2 GFLOPS (at 500MHz).
Maybe can you guys tell me if my reasoning is ok:
PIII core has 2 SIMD FP units, that I suppose can output a single precision operation per clock (FMUL or FADD), but keeping in mind that the FMUL unit is not fully pipelined.
I also suppose these operatetions are 64 bits, that is, an single precision operation with two 32 bit operands (as 128 bit SIMD have to be converted into 2 64 bit chunks, except for the new CORE DUO architecture). Am I getting this right??
So, suppose you do a FMUL and FADD per clock (I don't think this is possible because of FMUL not being fully pipelinined), that would be 2 FP operations per clock, and so being 1GFLOP..
Where am I wrong??
Thank you!
I don't think I understand why Intel PIII CPU is considererd to be a 2 GFLOPS (at 500MHz).
Maybe can you guys tell me if my reasoning is ok:
PIII core has 2 SIMD FP units, that I suppose can output a single precision operation per clock (FMUL or FADD), but keeping in mind that the FMUL unit is not fully pipelined.
I also suppose these operatetions are 64 bits, that is, an single precision operation with two 32 bit operands (as 128 bit SIMD have to be converted into 2 64 bit chunks, except for the new CORE DUO architecture). Am I getting this right??
So, suppose you do a FMUL and FADD per clock (I don't think this is possible because of FMUL not being fully pipelinined), that would be 2 FP operations per clock, and so being 1GFLOP..
Where am I wrong??
Thank you!