What exactly don't you understand. This isn't rocket science.
This isn't a matter of what
I don't understand.
This alone shows how little you know.
I wonder if Macke felt the same about himself when his tests demonstrated little if any difference in androgen exposure to the brain and sexual orientation.
Since you have done little to support your argumentation other than to prattle on with mere anecdotal reference i take little offense to your attack.
The masculinization of the human fetus through the use of testosterone in the womb is a reproductive fact. Testosterone affects the centers of the brain directly responsible for sexuality, not to mention our physicality in the womb as well.
Natoma why is it you continue to shout these specifics at me when i have already addressed tests by the researchers who introducted these ideas that failed to substantiate their claims? Why is it that none of my psych books from 101 to 103, psych bio, etc ever mention Macke et al findings as fact? Instead of assertions of their accuracy i find statements such as this
"Macke et al., (1993). Examined DNA sequence variation in androgen receptor gene, reasoning that some variants may affect sexual differentiation of the brain. No significant differences in the distributions of mutations in homosexual and heterosexual men. Using linkage analysis, they showed that sibling pairs concordant for homosexuality were no more likely than chance to share the same androgen receptor allele."
Natoma from what science has discovered it is best said that testosterone effects the developement of parts of the brain commonly accepted to be linked to pleasure and sexual arousal. Last i checked there wasn't a part of the brain that decided sexual orientation. If in fact it does exist please point it out to me. Oh, and please don't call it the libido.
It has direct influence on our aggression and our sex drive.
Natoma there is clearly something here you aren't understanding. No one is disagreeing with on this. What is in question is your usage of sex drive and sexual orientation. Sex drive has been clearly demonstrated to have genetic/neurological components. However what is sexy and human sexual orientation are still demonstratably widely affected by one's enviroment. Would you have us all believe that sexual attraction to body peircings and septum spikes are the direct cause of genetics? I should hope not. The belief that all of our "nature", or even many parts it, is some how predetermined/controlled by genetics is baseless and founded entirely on circuitous logic. There is no reason to entertain the notion that the dynamics of human sexuality are inborn without any supporting evidence.
For instance rapists have been shown to have inoordinately high levels of testosterone,
So do many people involved in road rage. The mere fact we these hormones incourage us to react in certain ways to stimuli doesn't at all influence our end decision. We can choose what we believe is the moral just thing.
and in cases where castration occurred (at the request of the offender), the behavior ceased. You can
all you like but it doesn't change the basic biology of human reproduction.
Did i ever deny this?
Hormones can incourage us to react in certain ways. That is apart of the purpose for which they exist. However the cause of their release is often also enviromental. Outside stimuli can cause, for example, adrenalin to be released. Intense emotions have been demonstrated to cause such.
However the manner in which you speak is more of a question of which came first; the chicken or the egg.
Did the hormone cause one's sexual orientation or did one's orientation, sexuality, or life style cause the hormone imbalance?
Natoma, can hormones see, smell, hear or have access to any other of our senses? Are they intelligent beigns some how aware of male and female? Would a deaf/blind man be officially labeled homosexual if he were exposed to a high level of estrogen androgen in the womb? If asked would he have any clue as to what male and female are? If he were africa would he find a septum spike attractive even without knowing what one is? Would or could he indentify with each sex? What would arouse him?
It is rather clear at this time no human is born with a developed understanding of gender or what it entails. Hormones themselves have no idea what male and female are or what is considering culturally sexually attractive. Humans lack the developed mating instincts of other animals.
I'm not talking about the length of someone's finger. What next, we find a corrolation in dick size? Please.
I think you are finding humor in the exact nature of the body of research you claim supports your belief. Researchers on your side of the argument have been willing to disregard all tenants of modern psychology in hopes of providing even a nebulous explination in favor of genetic predeterminism.
I'm not offering up psychobabble that a psychologist would have any reason to refute. Testosterone levels in the womb are not in the realm of psychology, but biology, so why you bring up a psychologist refuting this is bemusing.
You comments act as double edged swords. You call their refutations psychobabble based on your reasoning they are nitpicking what some psychologist hastely slapped together as evidence. If you disregard one then disregard the other.
Simon Levay wasn't the only one who conducted this research. You're completely wrong. Dean Hamer produced the same results 2 years later (1993) in a different and unrelated experiment with a sample of 40 gay brothers.
No shit. Check their findings to see if they correlate using objective methods. None have been able to replicate his findings. This is rather common sense as his hypothesis was formed from his belief humans have "mating sectors" in their brains related to mating instincts much like the rats he generally tested had
. He merely took a part of the brain that carried on some of the functions of the rat brain and correlated by region and took a wild stab in the dark.
Predetermined, in some cases yes.
I disagree. I would prefer the term "predispositioned" and flexible.
Why is it thne you have such a hard time entertaining the possibilit you are wrong? For a minute i would like for you to reflect on this. What would you have to lose if you were wrong?
As I said before we are a compilation of our genes, hormones released by those genes, and in some cases environmental factors, as I gave examples of in my post but you ignored.
You are quite the optomistic biological reductionist.
Heh. So you're saying that our height and weight aren't encoded in our genes, which then get expressed during puberty?
I don't recall saying height and weight aren't affected or directly caused by genetics. I think those two quite obviously are.
What about our sexuality, both physical and mental?
What about it? What definition of "sexuality" are you using now? Sexual orientation? gender?
We all just happen to grow hair on our groins and our bodies just happen to start getting doused with hormones for 8-10 years which cause tremendous change. Nope, these reactions aren't genetic in any way shape or form. They just happen.
Just like being attracted septum spikes? thats genetic too right?
I think we are both well aware that pubic hair's growth is affected by hormones.
I've read excerpts from these "camps" Legion. They all say the same thing.
Oh really? Knowing you Natoma you probably read this excerpt from a biased source no doubt. I have read excerpts from the APA's findings on tested individuals back in 2000. They seemed thurougly convinced over 1/3 of these individuals had demonstrated complete sexual orientation change.
I think it ought to be common sense that individuals sexual appetites can be changed quite readily. Of course in defense of your reasoning you would most likely say these individuals always were interested in bondage or child porn, they just weren't aware of it or were in complete denial of it. Would it be that easy for you to generalize the entire category of people?
The sexual arousal by those of the same sex is still there, quite strongly. They learn how to suppress those urges and live heterosexually. Some "relapse" and begin living their lives homosexually again, others do not.
You and I must be reading entirely different accounts. I have no doubts some of these "cured" individuals were in fact bsing. However when when the APA conduct's research on these inviduals before and after and determines some made complete or drastic changes i inclined to believe them.
And that is all I stated. The underlying sexual arousal response is still there. There is a difference between altering behavior and altering sexual arousal.
One of my favorite things about blanket statements natoma is they are so useful for covering shakey ground.
Your predilection toward believing me is rather moot Legion. It's merely fact.
To the contrary i find it to be to the point. I believe you could change your sexual orientation.
Did you enjoy having sex with the guy you said you had sex with? Do you wish to continue having sex with guys? Do you find yourself sexually aroused by guys to where you want to sex them? You didn't answer the question.
Do you enjoy dodging answering my questions?
Honestly, if you believe people's homosexuality is predetermined the act of sex itself is unecessary to your final conclusion. Just think i might point that out.
You also didn't address the chunk of my post summed up by this edit:
Yes i removed the filler. You have brought this exact statement up to me in the past and i addressed it. However since you seem so inclined to regurgitate it i will address it once again.
Natoma said:
One other thing to consider. Homosexuality is found in every culture around the world, even in those that are vastly different from one another. If the environmental variable is thrown out of the window because millions of homosexuals around the world do not experience the same situations growing up, there has to be some other reason for the prevalence of homosexuality in the human species.
The entire objection itself isn't based on sound reasoning. Why? The conclusion rests on the presupposition similar enviromental factors are required for a human to become homosexual. No two humans should be expect to react the same way to stimuli. Ergo there is no reason to presume sexual malestation, emotional abuse, etc are required to engineer Avg. Joe Homosexual.
Do to the fact people react differently to stimuli they may demonstrate similiar developing behaviors as homosexuals we have seen who's life style choice was pressured by identity crises caused by emotional abuse or emotional instability. Believe it or not some are more sensative than others.
Being that all of this is so how could a representative test be engineered? How could one demonstrated such consistancies in emotionally inconsistant humans?